What should I do, if anything? (Besides record them, that is.)
A buyer brings in a deed and mortgage from the seller - no attorney was
involved. The deed does not have all the owners of record, the mortgage is
signed by the buyer but worded such that the original owner is the grantor.
(They used the wordage from the deed and added another paragraph at the end.)
Are these defects on the title that I should let attorneys worry about?
Should I advise either/both of these parties that I think they need to see
To further complicate the matter, what they bought is a small back lot at
the lake that zoning/septic regulations will not allow to be developed. They
thought they could build whatever they wanted. I have advised them of the
It's also one of those situations where the buyer would appear to have been
taken advantage of by the seller, a developer and well known business man.
Thanks for your input!