Most of this discussion goes beyond my technical competence, but one
It is certain, is it not, that the biological basis of language was in
place for 10s or scores of millenia before language itself appeared?
That is, biologically modern humans got along without any language (or
any signifcant "symbolic behavior") for 50 thousand years or so before
language appeared. Hence language could have had nothing to do with the
initial development of homo sapiens????