Maybe I misunderstood the question, and please correct me if I am wrong,
but isn't it a reflection of the pressure surge caused by peak cardiac
output followed by the short pressure drop caused by the closing of the
aortic valve coupled with the refractory time as the pressure effected
by the elasticity of the arteries meets the falling cardiac pressure?
Or is there a different explanation as pertains to the renal
vasculature?

-----Original Message-----
From: UVM Flownet [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Don
Ridgway
Sent: Tuesday, February 28, 2006 1:44 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: ESP

One more question, then I'll try to shut up for a while:

What exactly causes the early systolic peak in a renal-hilar waveform?


Thanks,

Don Ridgway
Grossmont Hospital
Grossmont College

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